2.6 Why might dates differ by exactly one year ?
Until 1752 the legal and civil new year officially started with
the Feast of the Annunciation, on March 25th.
The day after December 31st it was officially still the same year,
so December 31st, 1609 was followed by
January 1st, 1609 "Old Style", not January 1st, 1610.
A child could thus be born the next month in February 1609
(OS), ten months after a marriage dated April 1609.
A date March 5th, 1650 in the IGI may thus represent either a "New Style"
corrected date (it really was 1650 NS) or an "Old
Style" uncorrected date (ie 1651 NS)
The date might even have been mis-corrected from 1649, either by human
error, or software confusion -- 1649 (NS) might have been entered as 1649-50,
meaning "either 1649 or 1650 (calendar uncertain)", and then fixed by a computer as 1650.
To make things even more difficult, note that both year-styles were in popular
use well before 1752. Scotland had legally switched to the 1st Jan
New Year back in 1600. The confusion was contemporary, not just present-day.